My question is about rings. I know there exists epimorphisms that are not surjective (e.g. the inclusion of $\mathbb{Z}$ in $\mathbb{Q}$), but I want to know if there is an equivalence (on rings, more exactly, commutative rings with unity) between monomorphisms and injective homomorphisms. If there's that equivalence, would you provide an elementary proof? Or some book where I can find them?
2026-03-26 18:49:56.1774550996
Is an injective ring morphism always a monomorphism?
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