Suppose that we have a Hilbert space, $H$, in which we can obtain a countable set of linearly independent vectors, $W = \{ w_1, \dots, w_n, \dots \}$, that is complete, in the following sense: for every vector $f \in H$, there exists a countable set of scalars $\{ a_1, \dots, a_n, \dots \}$ (say that the underlying field of $H$ is $\mathbb{R}$, for simplicity) such that, as $n \to \infty$, $$\left\| f - \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k w_k \right\| \to 0,$$ where $\left\| \cdot \right\|$ is the norm induced by the inner product in $H$.
Now, suppose that we apply the Gram-Schmidt orthonormalization process to the set $W$. This produces a countable set, $W'$, which is composed solely of orthogonal vectors.
My question is: Does the set $W'$ also constitute a complete set of vectors in $H$, as it was the case with the set $W$? If not, can someone provide a counterexample?
Thank you very much.
Yes. If $f$ is orthogonal to each of the vectors in the orthonormal set you have obtained then it is also orthogonal to each $w_k$. From the hypothesis it would the follow that $f$ is orthogonal to itself, so $f=0$. This implies that your orthonormal set is complete.