Given $\mathbf{x}=(x_1,...,x_n) \in \mathbb{R}^n$ , define $ \mathbf{x}'=(|x_1|,...,|x_n|) $ .
Then, is it $||\mathbf{x}'|| = ||\mathbf{x}||$ for every norm on $ \mathbb{R}^n $ ?
NB: The answer is trivially yes for $p$-norms.
Given $\mathbf{x}=(x_1,...,x_n) \in \mathbb{R}^n$ , define $ \mathbf{x}'=(|x_1|,...,|x_n|) $ .
Then, is it $||\mathbf{x}'|| = ||\mathbf{x}||$ for every norm on $ \mathbb{R}^n $ ?
NB: The answer is trivially yes for $p$-norms.
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
You may consider, for example,
$$\|(x_1,x_2)\|:=|x_1|+|x_1-x_2|.$$