I'm trying to extend the proof seen here that any open subset of $\mathbb{R}$ can be written as a countable union of disjoint open intervals. Apparently it seems like an analogous proof for $\mathbb{R}^n$. However I can't think of any equivalence relation that would allow me to proceed with my sketch.
The sketch is like:
- Define an equivalence relation $\sim$ on $\mathbb{R}^n$
- Show that the equivalence class $\sim(x)$ is non-empty and open
- Prove that $\sim(x)\bigcap \sim(y) \neq \emptyset \Rightarrow \sim(x)=\sim(y)$
- Demonstrate that $\sim(x)$ is an hypercube $\prod_{i=1}^N(a_i,b_i)$
- Show that the set of equivalence classes D is countable
- Deduce that $\bigcup D$ is equal to our open subset
It seems that you suppose the hypercubes to be open. In this case your statement is definetely not true. If n > 1 take the open ball of radius 1 $B_1(0)$ around the origin (given by the standard euclidean metric). This ball is definitely not a hypercube. So if there were disjoint open hypercubes $W_n$, such that $B_1(0) = \cup W_n$, there would be at least two. Since $B_1(0)$ is (path) connected, this is a contradiction.
If you don't suppose the cubes to be open, you can look here for an answer Every open subset $O$ of $\Bbb R^d,d \geq 1$, can be written as a countable union of almost disjoint closed cubes.