I have been reading up on the meagre sets sans an instructor after a 10 year break from this sort of mathematics and I would like to test my understanding. I want to know if the following is true (and if so, if anyone has a nice proof):
Is $c_0$ meagre in $l^\infty$ ? (where $c_0$ is the subset of $l^\infty$ where for $x_n$=the nth element of x, we have$lim_{n\to\infty} x_n=0$)
My approach is as follows (please correct me if I am wrong):
A space is meagre if it can be written as a countable union of nowhere dense sets. And a set is nowhere dense if it is closed and has no interior points.
So one needs to show that
$c_0$ is a subspace of $l^\infty$.
$c_0$ is closed in $l^\infty$.
The interior of $c_0$ is empty.
Then one could say that $c_0$ is nowhere dense and of course (?) it could be written as a countable union of nowhere dense sets (just itself?), so it is meagre.
For 1:
$c_0$ is non-empty as x=(1,0,0,0,...) is an element of $c_0$.
Let $x$ and $y$ be elements of $c_0$. This means $||x||_\infty=sup_n(|x_n|)<\infty$ and same for $y$. Then
$||x+y||_\infty=sup_n(|x_n+y_n|)=sup_n(|x_n|)+sup_n(|y_n|)<\infty$
and
$lim_{n\to\infty} (x_n+y_n)=lim_{n\to\infty} x_n+lim_{n\to\infty} y_n=0$
and
$||ax||_\infty=sup_n(|ax_n|)=|a|sup_n(|x_n|)<\infty$
and
$lim_{n\to\infty} (ax_n)=a lim_{n\to\infty} x_n=0$
so $x+y$ and $ax$ are elements of $c_0$. Thus, $c_0$ is subspace of $l^\infty$.
For 2:
Let $x^m$ be an element of $c_0$ and $x$ be an element of $l^\infty$.
$|x_n| \leq |x_n-(x^m)_n|+|(x^m)_n|$
$|x_n-(x^m)_n| \to 0$ (as $x \in l^\infty$) and $|(x^m)_n| \to 0$ (as $x^m \in c_0$)
so $|x_n| \to 0$ and then $x \in c_0$ and then $\overline c_0=c_0$ so $c_0$ is closed.
For 3:
HELP!!
Is my approach a workable approach? And/or is there a better one?
An idea how to tackle step 3: If a $x\in\mathring c_0$, then there is a ball of sufficiently small radius around $x$ that is still in $c_0$. So it is sufficient to show that for every $x\in c_0$ and every $\varepsilon>0$, there exists an element $a\in l^\infty$ such that $\|a-x\|_{l^\infty}<\varepsilon$ but $a\in l^\infty\setminus c_0$.
Proof: Let $x=(x_1,x_2,\ldots)\in c_0$ and $\varepsilon>0$ be fixed. There exists an index $N$ such that $|x_n|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ for all $n\geqslant N$. Now set $$ a:=\left(x_1,\ldots,x_N,\frac{\varepsilon}{2},\frac{\varepsilon}{2},\ldots\right). $$ Clearly, $a\in l^\infty\setminus c_0$ and $\|a-x\|_{l^\infty}<\varepsilon$.
EDIT: daws answer is somewhat cleaner than mine (but the idea is the same).