I am an amateur who has been pondering the following question. If there is a name for this or more information about anyone who has postulated this before, I would be interested about reading up on it. Thanks.
If $x$ is the sum of $y$ integers, and $z$ is the sum of the next $y$ integers, then is it always true that $z$ minus $x$ equals $y$ squared? Perhaps only starting at one.
For example:
$y = 3$
$x = (1+2+3) = 6$
$z = (4+5+6) = 15$
$z - x = 9 = y^2$
Brad
Let the first $y$ consecutive integers be $m,m+1,\ldots,m+y-1$; then the second $y$ integers are $m+y,m+y+1,\ldots,m+2y-1$. Thus, if we subtract the first sum from the second, we have this:
$$\begin{array}{ccc} &(m+y)&+&(m+y+1)&+&(m+y+2)&+&\ldots&+&(m+2y-1)\\ (-)&m&+&(m+1)&+&(m+2)&+&\ldots&+&(m+y-1)\\ \hline &y&+&y&+&y&+&\ldots&+&y \end{array}$$
There are $y$ columns, so the difference is indeed $y\cdot y=y^2$.