Let $V$ be a (finite-dimensional) vector space and $A \colon V \to V$ a linear map.
Is it true that, if $v$ is an eigenvector of $A\circ A$, then $v$ is an eigenvector of $A$?
I know the converse statement is true.
Let $V$ be a (finite-dimensional) vector space and $A \colon V \to V$ a linear map.
Is it true that, if $v$ is an eigenvector of $A\circ A$, then $v$ is an eigenvector of $A$?
I know the converse statement is true.
On
No, it is false: consider in a real vector space $$A=\begin{bmatrix} 0&1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}\implies A\circ A=\begin{bmatrix} 1&0\\0&1\end{bmatrix}$$ Then the vector $\begin{bmatrix} 1\\0\end{bmatrix}$ is an eigenvector of $A^2$ and not of $A$.
On
A rotation by 90° as represented by a matrix e.g. $$A=\begin{pmatrix}0&-1\\1&0\end{pmatrix}$$ has no real eigenvalue ($\chi_A(\lambda)=\lambda^2+1$ is the characteristic polynomial) and so no eigenvectors. The rotation by 180° $$A^2=\begin{pmatrix}-1&0\\0&-1\end{pmatrix}$$ has the whole space as a space of eigenvectors and zero vector .
Hint: Consider $$A=\begin{pmatrix}1&0\\0&-1\end{pmatrix}. $$ Or $$A=\begin{pmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{pmatrix}. $$