Let $\mathbb{F}_q$ be a finite field of order $q=p^n$ for some prime $p$ and let $f:\mathbb{F}_q\to \mathbb{F}_q$ be a bijection. If
- $f(0)=0$ (additive identity),
- $f(1)=1$ (multiplicative identity),
- $f(a)f(b)=f(ab)$ for all $a,b\in \mathbb{F}_q$,
then is $f$ a field automorphism ($i.e.$ does it follow that $f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)$)?
A source with a proof or counterexample would be very helpful.
Updated Question:
- Is every such bijection above that is not an automorphism of the form $f(x)=x^k$ for some k?
- Is there another property that $f$ could satisfy to force it to be an automorphism?
The map $a\mapsto a^{-1}$ (for $a\ne0$) and $0\mapsto0$ satisfies the requirement, but is not generally a field automorphism: $$ a^{-1}+b^{-1}=\frac{a+b}{ab} $$ so the equality $$ (a+b)^{-1}=\frac{a+b}{ab} $$ should hold as soon as $a+b\ne0$; this means $$ (a+b)^2=ab $$ that is $$ a^2+ab+b^2=0 $$ in particular $3=0$.
So if $p\ne2$ and $p\ne3$ we're done. Try your hand for the other cases.