Let $f$ be a function satisfying $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|f(x)|dx<\infty.$$
Is it true that for almost every $x\in\mathbb{R}$, $$f(x)=\lim_{R\rightarrow+\infty}\int_{-R}^{R}\hat{f}(w)e^{2i\pi x w}dw?$$
Here $\hat{f}$ denotes the Fourier transform of $f$.
Thanks for any comment or any suggestions.
Since the FT of $f(x)$ as $\hat f(\omega)$ exists, we can write:$$\hat f(\omega)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)e^{-i2\pi\omega x}dx$$and by substituting we obtain$$\int_{-R}^{R}\hat{f}(w)e^{2i\pi x w}dw{=\int_{-R}^{R}\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x_1)e^{-i2\pi\omega x_1}e^{2i\pi x w}dx_1dw\\=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x_1)\int_{-R}^{R} e^{-i2\pi\omega x_1}e^{2i\pi x w}dwdx_1\\= \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x_1){\sin 2\pi R(x-x_1)\over R(x-x_1)}dx_1 }$$since the latter integral is absolutely convergent we can write: $$\lim_{R\rightarrow+\infty}\int_{-R}^{R}\hat{f}(w)e^{2i\pi x w}dw=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x_1)\lim_{R\rightarrow+\infty}{\sin 2\pi R(x-x_1)\over R(x-x_1)}dx_1\\=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x_1)\delta(x-x_1)dx_1=f(x)$$where $\delta(x)$ denotes the Dirac delta function.