Let $f$ be defined on the real line by $$f(x) = \sum_{n=2}^{+\infty} \frac{\cos(nx)}{n^2\log(n)}$$ Is $f$ a $C^1$ function?
I manage to prove that it is $C^1$ on $\mathbb R \setminus 2\pi \mathbb Z$ using Abel's summation technique.
I manage to prove that it is differentiable in $0$ (or at multiples of 2$\pi$) by showing that $\frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x} \to_{x \to 0} 0$.
However, what about the continuity of $f'$ at point $0$?
Hint: your series is uniformly converged. For derivative series works Dirichlet's test