Let $z$ be a complex number. Is the alternating infinite series $$ f(z) = \frac{1}{\exp(z)} - \frac{1}{\exp(\exp(z))} + \frac{1}{\exp(\exp(\exp(z)))} -\dotsb $$ an entire function ? Does it even converge everywhere ?
Additional questions (added dec 16)
Consider the similar case for $z$ being real or having a small imaginary part:
$$ g(z) = \frac{1}{z} + \frac{1}{\exp(z)} + \frac{1}{\exp(\exp(z))} + \frac{1}{\exp(\exp(\exp(z)))} + \dotsb$$ As such $g(z)$ converges for real $z$ but diverges for nonreals.
So we try Some sort of continuation:
$$ g(z) = 1/z + 1/\exp + \dotsb$$ $$g(\exp) = 1/\exp + \dotsb $$
Thus $ g(z) - g(\exp(z) ) = 1/z $
$$ \exp(z) = g^{[-1]} ( g(z) - 1/z ) $$
Call that solution $g_1(z)$.
Assume differentiability and take the derivative at both sides. (Notice we can repeat to get infinite many equations!)
$$ \exp(z) = \frac{d}{dz} g^{[-1]} ( g(z) - 1/z) $$ [ ofcourse we can simplify the RHS by applying the chain rule and the rule for the derivative of the functional inverse - name ? - ]
And in General the equations
$$ exp(z) = \frac{d^m}{dz^m} g^{[-1]} ( g(z) - 1/z ) $$
Point is: are these equations getting analytic solutions or not?
Also we could combine the equations to get new ones.
Like this for example :
$$ g^{[-1]} ( g(z) - 1/z ) = \frac{d}{dz} g^{[-1]} ( g(z) - 1/z ) $$
And we could continue by taking any positive integer number of $a$ th derivative on the LHS and any positive integer number of $b$ th derivative on the RHS !
So are all these equations nowhere analytic ?? Or Some ? Or all of them ? And when they are analytic is it possible to do analytic continuation ? Are there natural boundaries ??
Many questions.
In fact ; not even sure how to solve these equations , neither with expressions nor numerical. - in terms of complex Numbers ofcourse otherwise i simply use the Sum from the beginning -.
< ps i considered using the functional inverse of $ g $ with notation $G$ so the simplifications of the derivatives take a different form , yet this makes no essential difference i guess >
No. There are infinitely many $z$ for which $e^z = z$, namely the branches of $-\text{LambertW}(-1)$: approximately $ 0.3181315052 \pm 1.337235701\,i, 2.062277730 \pm 7.588631178\,i, 2.653191974 \pm 13.94920833\,i, \ldots$