Is $$\frac{a+b}{c+d}<\frac{a}{c}+\frac{b}{d}$$ for $a,b,c,d>0$
If it is true, then can we generalize?
EDIT:typing mistake corrected.
EDIT, WILL JAGY. Apparently the real question is Is $$\color{magenta}{\frac{a+b}{c+d}<\frac{a}{c}+\frac{b}{d}}$$ for $a,b,c,d>0,$ where letters on the left hand side and in the numerator stay in the numerator on the right-hand side, and letters on the left hand side and in the denominator stay in the denominator on the right-hand side.
If you consider them as slopes, then $(0,0)$, $(b,a)$, $(d,c)$ and $(b+d,a+c)$ form a parallelogram. So the slope of the line between $(0,0)$ and $(b+d,a+c)$ will be between the slopes of the lines between $(0,0)$ and $(b,a)$ and $(d,c)$. That means that $\frac{a+c}{b+d}$ will be between $\frac{a}{b}$ and $\frac{c}{d}$. Since these two are positive, this means that $$\frac{a+c}{b+d}\leq \max\left(\frac{a}{b},\frac{c}{d}\right)< \frac{a}{b}+\frac{c}{d}$$
It's pretty clear that you can generalize this by induction to:
$$\frac{a_1+\dots+a_n}{b_1+\dots+b_n}\leq \max_i\left(\frac{a_i}{b_i}\right)$$