Is $\hat{\theta}_{\text{MLE}}$ the UMVUE of $\theta$?

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I am working through some practice problems before an exam, but I am getting stuck. The PDF is $f(x \mid \theta) = \theta x^{\theta - 1}$, where $0 < x < 1$.

I have already found the MLE as $$\hat{\theta}_{\text{MLE}}=\frac{-n}{\sum_{i = 1}^{n}\log{x_i}}$$

I've also shown that this is both a complete and sufficient statistic, so all I need to do is show that it's unbiased to show that its the UMVUE. This is where I'm drawing a blank. How do I show that it's unbiased?