Is Inducing Limits in Irrationality proof valid?

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first of all, I want to say that I am pretty new to math. So, if there are any mistake, please told me.

I attempt to proof that $e^{e}$ is irrational.

$e^{e} = e^{1}*e^{1}*e^{1/2!}*e^{1/3!}*...$

Suppose an integer "a" We can rewritten equation as

$e^{e} = e^{1}*e^{1}*e^{1/2!}*e^{1/3!}*...*e^{1/a!}*e^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(a+n)!}}$

$(e^{e})^{a!} = (e^{1}*e^{1}*e^{1/2!}*e^{1/3!}*...*e^{1/a!})^{a!}*(e^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a!}{(a+n)!}})$

Induce the Limit, We got

$\lim_{a\rightarrow \infty} {(e^{e})^{a!}} = \lim_{a\rightarrow \infty}(e^{1}*e^{1}*e^{1/2!}*e^{1/3!}*...*e^{1/a!})^{a!}*(e^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a!}{(a+n)!}})$

We can derive that

$(e^{e})^{integer} = e^{integer}*(e^0)$

There was a proof already that $e^{integer}$ and this also imply that $e^{e}$ is irrational because, irrational only come irrational * irrational.

But still, I'm not sure that could we use limit in this kind of proof. Thank you in advance.