For example, there are two inner products $ Q_1$ and $Q_2$ and they are both the inner product on $\mathbb R^2$.
Is it possible to suppose that $ Q_1 \geq Q_2$?
More specifically, for all vectors $v,w\in \mathbb R^2$, is it always true that $Q_1(v,w)\geq Q_2(v,w)$ and $ Q_1(v,w)= Q_2(v,w)\iff$ [$v=w$ and $v=0$]?
Is this possible?
No. If $Q_1(v,w)\geq Q_2(v,w)$ for all $v,w$, you can replace $v$ with $-v$ to get the reverse inequality. In other words $Q_1\geq Q_2$ if and only if $Q_1=Q_2$.