Is it possible to infer bijectivity of a function from an existing function that you know is bijective?

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Suppose we know that $f : M \rightarrow N$ is a homeomorphism.

And we are given $g : M \rightarrow N$ that we know is injective and smooth.

Does it follow that $g$ is also bijective? And how would we prove this?

I am also most interested in the case where $M$ and $N$ are smooth manifolds of the same dimension.

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The function $$\begin{array}{l|rcl} f : & \mathbb R & \longrightarrow & \mathbb R_+\\ & x & \longmapsto & e^x \end{array}$$

is an homeomorphism.

$$\begin{array}{l|rcl} g : & \mathbb R & \longrightarrow & \mathbb R_+\\ & x & \longmapsto & e^x +1\end{array}$$

is smooth an injective, but not bijective.