I came across the following question:
Show that $(a, b:a^3 = 1, b^2= 1, ba=a^2b)$ gives a group of order $6$. Show that it is non abelian. Is it the only non abelian group of order $6$ up to isomorphism?
I managed to prove everything except the last statement. How could anyone prove the group is the only non-abelian group of a particular order, without knowing all the groups of that order from some worksheet?
Does this generalize as a problem, or did our instructor just want us to learn the groups of order $6$?
Also, what does "up to isomorphism" mean?
Let $G$ be a group of order $6$
Then there are elements of order $3$ and $2$, say $a$ and $b$ repsectively by Cauchy's Theorem.
Let $H=\langle a \rangle $ and $K=\langle b \rangle$
Then $H \cap K=\{e\}$ since any order of any element in the intersection divide both $2$ and $3$.
Now $H$ is normal in $G$ since $[G:H]=2$
Thus $HK $ forms a group and infact $G=HK$
Thus every element in $G$ can be listed as $\{1, a,a^2,b,ab,a^2b\}$
Let us think about the element $bab^-(=bab)$ .
We should note $o(bab)=o(a)$. Which one of the above elements can be equal to $bab$ and what can we conclude from there ?