Let $V$ be a vector space in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Assume we have a basis, $B = (b_1, b_2, b_3)$, that spans $V$. Now choose some $v \in V$ such that $v \ne 0$. Is is always possible to swap $v$ with a column in $B$ to obtain a new basis for $V$?
My initial thought is that it is not always possible since if $v$ is some linear combination of any 2 vectors in $B$ then if we were to swap $w$ into $B$, $B$ would no longer span $V$. Am I missing a nuance here?
I am first assuming that we are talking about a general $n$-dimensional vector space $V$ with $n$ any finite positive integer.
If $\{\vec v_1, \ldots, \vec v_n\}$ is a basis for $V$ and $\vec w \in V$ is non zero then $\vec w = c_1\vec v_1 + \cdots + c_n\vec v_n$ where at least one $c_i$ is non zero for some $1 \le i \le n$. Thus we get $\frac{1}{c_i}\vec w = \frac{c_1}{c_i}\vec v_1 + \cdots + \frac{c_i}{c_i}\vec v_i + \cdots + \frac{c_n}{c_i}\vec v_n$ and rearranged we get $\vec v_i = \frac{1}{c_i}\vec w - \frac{c_1}{c_i}\vec v_1 - \cdots - \frac{c_n}{c_i}\vec v_n$.
So, if we remove $v_i$ from the basis and add $w$, any $v \in V$ that previously required $v_i$ as part of its representation can now use the $RHS$ of the last step in its place.