Ok, this might be a bit trivial but I'm having trouble wrapping my head around my text book.
So, to my understanding for ${Span(v_{1},v_{2},..,v_{n})}$ then ${v_{1},v_{2},..,v_{n}}$ must be linearly independent.
Is this correct or am I just completely misguided?
Thanks!
No, you can take the span of any set of vectors. In order for a set to be a basis of a subspace, it must not only span the subspace, but also be linearly independent.
The span of any set of vectors is simply the collection of all linear combinations of the vectors in that set. That's defined for any set.