Suppose $E\subset \mathbb{R}^n.$ Is it true that for all $x\in\partial E,$ $x$ is an accumulation point of $\partial E$?
The reason I think this is true (despite my feeling it is false) is that we have $$\partial E=\{ p \in \mathbb{R}^n, \forall r>0 \text{ one has } B(p,r)\cap E\neq\emptyset \text{ and } B(p,r)\cap E^C \neq \emptyset \}$$
which implies, with some extra reasoning, that every ball about every point in $\partial E$ Intersects $S-\{p\}.$
$E=(0,1) \subseteq \mathbb R$ only has two boundary points and these are not accumulation points of that finite boundary....