Suppose $(P, \leq)$ is a partially ordered set.
For $x \in P$, define $U_x := \{ y \in P \ | \ y \geq x\}$.
Is it true that for any $x,y \in P$, either $U_x \cap U_y = \emptyset$ or $U_x \cap U_y = U_z$ for some $z \in P$ ?
Suppose $(P, \leq)$ is a partially ordered set.
For $x \in P$, define $U_x := \{ y \in P \ | \ y \geq x\}$.
Is it true that for any $x,y \in P$, either $U_x \cap U_y = \emptyset$ or $U_x \cap U_y = U_z$ for some $z \in P$ ?
On
What does it meant that $U_x\cap U_y$ is empty? It means that no element is larger than both of them.
What does it meant that $U_x\cap U_y=U_z$? It means that any element which is larger than both is also larger than $z$ (or $z$ itself).
So in order to find a counterexample, we need to engineer a partial order in which there are two elements which are themselves not comparable, but have a common upper bound, yet they do not have a least upper bound. What would that mean?1 It means that if $z\geq x,y$ then there is some $z'$ such that $x,y\leq z'<z$. So there is at least a decreasing sequence of upper bounds.
So we can start with something that looks like a decreasing sequence, and put two (or more) elements below that sequence. I'll leave it for you to come up with such an example.
It could also mean that there are two incomparable "minimal upper bounds" to $x$ and $y$. So it would look like
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No. Consider the set $P=\{\{a\},\{b\},\{a,b,c\},\{a,b,d\}\}$ partially ordered by inclusion. $U_{\{a\}}\cap U_{\{b\}}=\{\{a,b,c\},\{a,b,d\}\}$, which is neither empty nor of the form $U_z$ for some $z\in P$.