Let $E\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ be a measurable set with finite measure. $\{f_n\}$ and $f$ are non-negative measurable functions on $E$, s.t. $f_n\to f$ in measure on $E$. If $h$ is a measurable, non-negative, bounded function on $E$ s.t. $0\le h(x)\le f(x)$ for all $x\in E$, is it true that $\min\{h, f_n\}\to h$ in measure on $E$?
Motivation for this question: I want to show that Fatou's Lemma is still true if the hypothsis "a.e. convergence" is replaced by "convergence in measure". I know a classical proof is to assume the contrary. But I wonder if it can be proved by modifying the proof for "a.e. convergence". But when repeating the proof I have to prove the above claim.
Yes the claim is correct. Let $\epsilon >0$
$$h(x) - \min\{h(x), f_n(x)\} > \epsilon \; \implies \; f_n(x) < h(x) - \epsilon\le f(x) - \epsilon\; \implies f(x) - f_n(x) > \epsilon.$$
Can you finish the proof?