I'm reading some notes on particle physics by a university professor, and after doing calculations I've reached the conclusion that in order for one of his claims to be true, this equality would have to hold. I assume that it does, but I would like to know how to prove it mathematically.
I suppose that I could attempt to expand both sides of the equality, calculating the products involved, and see if the results are equal, but that seems too rudimentary, so I'm looking for a more elegant way.
Thank you very much in advance!
You are off by a sign.
Recall $$ V\times(\nabla\times V)=\underbrace{V\cdot (\nabla V)^T}_{=\nabla(\tfrac12 V\cdot V)} - (V\cdot\nabla)V $$ (This is the usual "BAC-CAB" identity for triple vector product except because we are dealing with operators we need to preserve the order. The transpose here on $\nabla V$ make sure the $\cdot$ is contracting the two $V$s) and apply curl, remembering curl of a gradient vanishes.