Given an algebraic number field $K$ and its ring of integers $\mathcal{O}_K$, is $\mathcal{O}_K$ always isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}[X]/(f(x))$, for some irreducible polynomial $f(x)$?
Since $\mathcal{O}_K/\mathcal{m}$ is a finite field for any non-zero prime ideal $m \subset \mathcal{O}_K$, it is isomorphic to some $\mathbb{F}_p[X]/(\widetilde{f}(x))$. If the statment 1. is true, is it also true that the $\widetilde{f}(x) = f(x) \bmod{p}$, and $\mathcal{O}_K/\mathcal{m} \cong \mathbb{Z}[X]/(p,f(x)) \cong \mathbb{F}_p[X]/(\widetilde{f}(x))$?
If these are not true for any algebraic number field could you point me in the right direction? I have been reading some notes, that are apparently incomplete, and I would appreciate a reference to where I could find the proofs of these (or the most similar general) statements.
The $\mathbb{Z}$-module $M=\mathbb{Z}[X]/(f)$ is generated as an algebra by a single element in $M$, since $M = \mathbb{Z}[ \overline{X} ]$ where $\overline{X} = X + (f)$. So if it was true, what you were asking in question 1, it will follow that the ring of integers are generated by a single algebraic integer. This is not true in general. Look for an example of a ring of integers that fails to be generated by a single element.