Is my Fourier Transform calculation right?

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This is my time domain function. I am asked to find the Fourier Transform and calculate the value when omega is zero. (I am using $X(\omega)$ notation for the Fourier Transform of x(t)).

\begin{align*} X(\omega) &= \int_{-1}^3 x(t) e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t \\ &= \int_{-1}^0 x(t) e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t + \int_{0}^1 x(t) e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t + \int_1^2 x(t) e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t + \int_2^3 x(t) e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t \\ &= \int_{-1}^0 2e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t + \int_{0}^1 (2 - t)e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t + \int_1^2 te^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t + \int_2^3 2 e^{-i\omega t}\, \mathrm{d}t, \end{align*}

\begin{align*} X(\omega)=\frac{1+e^{-2i\omega}-2i\omega e^{j\omega}+2i\omega e^{-3i\omega}-2e^{-i\omega}}{\omega^2} \end{align*}

But after substitute $\omega=0$, the whole thing below up. Is my calculation right?

Thank you!

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if fourier transform of $x(t)$ is $X(\omega)$

then,

we know ,

area under curve of signal $x(t) $ = value of fourier transform at $\omega =0 $

i.e,

$\implies \displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}x(t) dt= X(0)$

$\implies X(0)=2.\left(2+\dfrac{3}{2}\right)=5 $

there is one other similar property one should know ,

area under of curve of $X(\omega)= 2\pi \times x(0)$ i.e,

$\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}X(\omega) d\omega=2\pi. x(0)$

for this question of yours

area under curve of $X(\omega)= 2\pi . 2= 4\pi$

that extra factor of $2\pi $ is due to definition of Inverse Fourier transform