Is my proof of linear fractional transformations correct?

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a) Prove that the most general $1-1$ conformal map of the upper half-plane onto itself is of the form $$z \to \frac{az+b}{cz+d}$$ where $a,b,c,d \in \mathbb{R}$ and $ad-bc =1$.

b) Let $f$ be a $1-1$ analytic function from the plane to itself. What can it be? A full explanation from first principles is wanted.

Edit: I think I have a decent proof of part (a), so any hints for part (b) are welcome.

Thanks,