Is $\ n\cdot (1-x)\cdot e^{-n\cdot(1-x)}$ uniformly and pointwise convergent in [0, a]?
$\ f_n:[0, a]\to \mathbb{R}, 0<a\le 1 $
I started by calculating the limit of $\ f_n(0)$:
$\ \lim_{n\to \infty} f_n(0)= n\cdot (1-0)\cdot e^{-n\cdot(1-0)}=n\cdot e^{-n}$.
How do I continue now?..
You have $f_n(1)=0$. When $0\leq x<1$, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}f_n(x)=0,$$ since the exponential with negative exponent wins over the linear factor.
Assume first that $a<1$. For $x\leq a$ we have $1-x\geq 1-a$, so $$ 0\leq n(1-x)e^{-n(1-x)}\leq n(1-x) e^{-n(1-a)}\leq n e^{-n(1-a)} $$ and the convergence is uniform.
When $a=1$, though, the convergence is not uniform. If we let $$ x_n=1-\tfrac1n, $$ then for all $n$ $$ f_n(x_n)=n(1-x_n)\,e^{-n(1-x_n)}=e^{-1}. $$ So there is no possible $N$ such that $|f_n(x)|<e^{-1}$ for all $x\in[0,1]$ and $n>N$.