Let $g : (−1, 1) → R$ be the function $g(x ) := \frac{x}{(1−x)}$. With the notation as in $(b)$ show that the partial sums $\Sigma _{n=1}^N f^n$ converges pointwise as $N → ∞$ to $g$, but does not converge uniformly to $g$, on the open interval $(−1,1)$.
What would happen if we replaced the open interval $(−1, 1)$ with the closed interval $[−1, 1]$?
Notation from part $(b)$ is the following. For each integer $n ≥ 1$, let $f^n : (−1,1) → R$ be the function $f^n(x) := x^n$.

For closed interval $[-1,1]$, then $f_{n}(1)=1\rightarrow 1$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$. But $f_{n}(-1)=(-1)^{n}$ does not converge. The $g$ is not defined at $x=1$. Even so, the convergence is not uniform if we set $h(x)=\dfrac{x}{1-x}$ for $x\in(-1,1)$, $h(1)=1$, and consider the convergence on $(-1,1]$.
About the issue of uniform convergence: Assume that it were, then \begin{align*} \left|\sum_{n=1}^{N}f_{n}(x)-g(x)\right|<1,~~~~x\in(-1,1),~~~~N\geq L \end{align*} for big $L>0$, then \begin{align*} \dfrac{x-x^{L+1}}{1-x}>\dfrac{x}{1-x}-1,~~~~x\in(-1,1), \end{align*} taking $x\rightarrow 1^{-}$ and using L'Hopital on the left, one gets $\dfrac{x-x^{L+1}}{1-x}\rightarrow(L+1)$ by the right blows up, a contradiction.