I am trying to show if this well formed formula is a tautology $(p \land q) \to (p \oplus q)$, I have done the following but I am stuck.
\begin{align} (p \land q) \to (p \oplus q) &\equiv \lnot(p \land q) \lor (p \oplus q) &\text{By Implication} \\ &\equiv (\lnot p \lor \lnot q) \lor (p \oplus q) &\text{By De Morgan} \end{align}
But I dont know what to do with $p \oplus q$ part.
I know it is an exclusive or, and it is true only when one of them p or q is true, but not both.
What is the next thing to do?
Exclusive Or: $~p\oplus q ~{~\equiv~(p\vee q)\wedge(\neg p\vee\neg q)\\~\equiv~ (p\wedge\neg q)\vee(\neg p\wedge q)}$
Substitute the equivalence of your choice into your expression and continue from there.