By constructing truth tables, I have found that $([P \wedge (\sim Q)] \Rightarrow Q) \Rightarrow P \vdash P$.
In attempting to prove it, so far I have:
$1 \: (1) \: ([P \wedge (\sim Q)] \Rightarrow Q) \Rightarrow P$ [Assumption]
$2 \: (2) \: [P \wedge (\sim Q)] \Rightarrow Q$ [Assumption]
$3 \: (3) \: P \wedge (\sim Q)$ [Assumption]
$3 \: (4) \: P$ [$\wedge E$, 3]
$3 \: (5) \: \sim Q$ [$\wedge E$, 3]
$2, 3 \: (6) \: Q $ [MP 2, 3]
However, it seems to me that it is cannot be a theorem since $P \wedge (\sim Q)$ cannot imply $Q$.
Is this a theorem, and if so, how can it be proven?
Using standard rules of propositional logic, we have:
$$\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} (P \land (\sim Q)) \Rightarrow Q &\equiv \ \sim (P \land (\sim Q) \land (\sim Q)) \\[6pt] &\equiv \ \sim (P \land (\sim Q)) \\[6pt] &\equiv \ (\sim P) \lor Q. \\[6pt] \end{aligned} \end{equation}$$
Hence, we have:
$$\begin{equation} \begin{aligned} ((P \wedge (\sim Q)) \Rightarrow Q) \Rightarrow P &\equiv \ ((\sim P) \lor Q) \Rightarrow P \\[6pt] &\equiv \ \sim (((\sim P) \lor Q) \lor (\sim P)) \\[6pt] &\equiv \ \sim ((\sim P) \lor Q) \\[6pt] &\equiv \ P \land (\sim Q). \\[6pt] \end{aligned} \end{equation}$$
Thus, your statement boils down to $(P \land (\sim Q)) \vdash P$, which is indeed a theorem.