I would like to reduce this statement:$$ P \veebar (P \implies B) $$ using only $\neg$, $\land$ I've found this solution but I don't know if I'm wrong: $$\neg(P \land B)$$ Because the book proposes this one using XOR: $$\neg P \veebar (P \land \neg B)$$ Is there any errors or things by which I should do the same?
Exercise 1.8-4 p.16 from Analisi matematica vol.1 by Enrico Giusti
That's right. To check, let's unpack the initial formula:
$$P \oplus (P \rightarrow B)$$
$$P \oplus (\lnot P \lor B)$$
$$(P \lor (\lnot P \lor B))\land \lnot(P \land (\lnot P \lor B))$$
$$(\top \lor B)\land \lnot(P \land (\lnot P \lor B))$$
$$\top\land \lnot(P \land (\lnot P \lor B))$$
$$\lnot(P \land (\lnot P \lor B))$$
$$(\lnot P \lor \lnot(\lnot P \lor B))$$
$$(\lnot P \lor (P \land \lnot B))$$
$$(\lnot P \lor P) \land (\lnot P \lor \lnot B)$$
$$\top \land (\lnot P \lor \lnot B)$$
$$(\lnot P \lor \lnot B)$$
Which, once De Morganed, is equivalent to your solution:
$$\lnot(P \land B)$$