In other words, when writing down an infinite sum, are we always implying that it's actually the limit of that series as the number of terms approaches infinity, or is there some subtle difference?
2026-04-04 08:37:21.1775291841
Is $\sum_{n=0}^\infty (a \cdot r^n)$ equivalent to $\lim_{n \to \infty}\sum_{k=0}^n (a \cdot r^k)$?
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The sum
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty$$
is defined to be
$$\lim_{k\to\infty}\sum_{n=0}^k$$
so yes they are the same. Of course this is an abuse of notation, since $\infty$ is not a number. In the same way, it is not "proper" to write the interval $[0,\infty)$, but we all understand what it means.