Let us consider the category of left exact functors between two abelian categories. Is this category abelian? My intuition is that it is not. Does someone have any counterexample ? Or any proof that I'm false? I think that we will have problems with cokernels...
Is the category of left exact functors abelian?
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On
Here's an example where $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B})$ fails to have cokernels in which $\mathcal{B}$ is not cocomplete. Presumably there are also examples where $\mathcal{B}$ fails to be a Grothendieck category in other ways.
Also, I'm far from convinced that there are not much simpler examples than this.
Let $R$ be a countable dimensional algebra over a field $k$, and let $\mathcal{A}$ be the category of (at most) countable dimensional $R$-modules. Let $\hat{\mathcal{B}}$ be the category of vector spaces over $k$, and $\mathcal{B}$ the subcategory of (at most) countable dimensional vector spaces.
Note that if $X$ is a finitely generated $R$-module then it is an object of $\mathcal{A}$ and $\text{Hom}_R(X,-)$ is an object of $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B})$.
If $0\to X\to Y\to Z$ is an exact sequence in $\mathcal{A}$ then $$\text{Hom}_R(Z,-)\to\text{Hom}_R(Y,-)\to\text{Hom}_R(X,-)\to0$$ is an exact sequence in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\hat{\mathcal{B}})$, or in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B})$ if $X,Y$ and $Z$ are all finitely generated, since if $F$ is another left exact functor then (by Yoneda's lemma) taking maps in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\hat{\mathcal{B}})$ to $F$ from the sequence gives the exact sequence $$0\to F(X)\to F(Y)\to F(Z).$$
If we choose $0\to X\to Y\to Z$ so that $Y$ and $Z$ are finitely generated but $X$ is not, and $\text{Hom}_R(X,A)$ has uncountable dimension for some object $A$ of $\mathcal{A}$, then it seems reasonable to hope that there is no cokernel of $\text{Hom}_R(Z,-)\to\text{Hom}_R(Y,-)$ in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B})$, although there is a cokernel, namely $\text{Hom}_R(X,-)$, in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\hat{\mathcal{B}})$.
Here's an example where I can prove there is no cokernel. Let $R=S(V)$, the symmetric algebra on a countable dimensional vector space $V$.
Let $J$ be the ideal generated by $V$, and $Y\to Z$ the natural map $R\to R/J$. Then $\text{Hom}_R(J,R/J)$ is uncountable dimensional, being naturally isomorphic to the dual $V^\ast$ of $V$. The cokernel of $\text{Hom}_R(Z-)\to\text{Hom}_R(Y,-)$ in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\hat{\mathcal{B}})$ is $\text{Hom}_R(J,-)$. Suppose a cokernel $C$ exists in $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B})$. Then there is a natural map $\text{Hom}_R(J,-)\to C$, the universal map to an object of $\mathbf{Lex}(\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B})$.
For every finite dimensional subspace $U<V$ let $J_U$ be the subideal of $J$ generated by $U$. Then we have natural maps $$V^\ast\cong\text{Hom}_R(J,R/J)\to C(R/J)\to\text{Hom}_R(J_U,R/J)\cong U^\ast$$ whose composition is the dual of the inclusion $U\to V$.
But for every nonzero element $\varphi\in V^\ast$ there is some finite dimensional subspace $U<V$ so that $\varphi$ is not in the kernel of $V^\ast\to U^\ast$. So $\text{Hom}_R(J,R/J)\to C(R/J)$ must be injective, contradicting the fact that $C(R/J)$ has countable dimension.
On
This is really a comment rather than an answer. I just wanted to give a link to my answer on MathOverflow https://mathoverflow.net/questions/299014/is-the-category-of-left-exact-functors-abelian , which contains an example showing that the category of left exact functors $\mathcal A^{op}\to (k{-}\mathrm{vect})^{op}$ does not need to be abelian, when $\mathcal A$ is a small (really, small) abelian category and $k{-}\mathrm{vect}$ is the category of vector spaces over a field $k$.
Edit : this is not the correct answer. However, I decided to let it here because some people thought it was good. Explanations in comments.
I found a solution here MathOverflow link. First I did not understand, so I tried to make it more clear.
Let $\mathcal{A,B}$ be two abelian categories. We want to prove that the category $\mathbf{Lex(\mathcal{A,B})}$ of left exact functors is not abelian. One can check that biproducts, kernels and the zero object still exist. The problem comes from cokernels.
Let us work in $\mathbf{Mod_R}$. We consider the natural transformation $\alpha : Hom(Y,\_) \Rightarrow Hom(X,\_)$ related to a morphism $f:X \rightarrow Y$. One should note that $\alpha$ is nothing more than the natural transformation $Hom(f,\_)$. Let us consider $\beta : Hom(X,\_) \Rightarrow K$ the cokernel of $\alpha$ which is computed pointwise. We want to prove that $K$ does not preserve monomorphisms, which will imply that it is not a left exact functor. For this, let us consider a monomorphism $g:A \rightarrow B$. Then, by naturality we have the following commutative diagram :
Hom(Y,A) \arrow[r,"\alpha_A"] \arrow[d," {Hom(Y,g)} "] & Hom(X,A) \arrow[r,"\beta_A"] \arrow[d," {Hom(X,g)} "] & KA \arrow[d,"Kg"] \ Hom(Y,B) \arrow[r,"\alpha_B"] & Hom(X,B) \arrow[r,"\beta_B"] & KB
(sorry I dont know how to do it here, I use tikzcd normally)
Since $KA$ is the cokernel of $\alpha_A$, it is the quotient of $Hom(X,A)$ by the image of $\alpha_A$. In other words, $KA$ is the set of morphisms from $X$ to $A$ which do not factor through $f$. In the same way, $KB$ is the set of morphisms from $X$ to $B$ which do not factors through $f$, and $Kg : v \mapsto g \circ v$. To prove that $K$ does not preserve monomorphisms, we want to find $g$ such that $Kg$ sends a non-zero morphism to zero. For this, we take the ring $R=k[X]$ as a polynomial ring, $X=A$, $Y=B$ and $f=g: (X) \hookrightarrow k[X]$ which a nonsplit monomorphism, i.e. there is no $h:B \rightarrow A$ such that $h\circ f=Id_A$. In this case, the identity $Id_A \in KA$ is a non-zero element but $(Kf)(Id_A)=f$ is a zero-element since it factors through $f$. This proves that $K$ is not left exact and thus the cokernel of $\alpha$ in $\mathbf{Lex(\mathcal{A,B})}$ does not exist in general.
Note : In his thesis, Gabriel proved that under stronger conditions the category $\mathbf{Lex(\mathcal{A,B})}$ is abelian. In fact, if the categories $\mathcal{A,B}$ are abelian and $\mathcal{B}$ has generators and exact inductive limits, then the category $\mathbf{Lex(\mathcal{A,B})}$ is abelian. One particular example which is often used in this thesis (and other works) is the category $\mathbf{Lex(\mathcal{A},Ab)}$.