I have been thinking about the following:
If $G$ is a finite group and $x\in G$ an element of order $n$ is then $\langle x\rangle$ always a subgroup of $G$?
I have the definition that $\langle x\rangle=\{1,x,x^2,...,x^{{\rm ord}(x)-1}\}$
Do check this I know that I should check the following three points:
- $1_G\in \langle x\rangle$. This is clear since $x^0=1$.
- Stable under inverses: Let $u\in \langle x\rangle$. Then $u=x^i$ for some $1\leq i \leq n$. I claim that $u^{-1}=(x^{n-1})^i$ is the inverse of $u$. Indeed $$x^i(x^{n-1})^i=x^i(x^{ni-i})=x^{ni}=(x^n)^i=1_G^i=1_G$$ And since $\langle x\rangle$ is abelian $u^{-1}$ is indeed the inverse of $u$. Furthermore it is clear that $u^{-1}\in \langle x\rangle$.
- Stable under composition: let $u,v\in \langle x\rangle$, then $u=x^i, v=x^j$ for some $1\leq i,j\leq n$. Then $uv=x^ix^j=x^{i+j}\in \langle x\rangle$
According to this proof I think my claim should be correct but I'm not 100% sure, thats why I wanted to ask if someone could take a look. Thanks a lot.
Well it is correct . Hence it is not necessary that $x$ is an element of finite order neither should $G$ be finite .
I propose the following proof .
let $x$ be an element of $G$ (with no condition on $x$)
Consider the application, $f: \mathbb{Z} \to G$ , such that for all k in $\mathbb{Z}$ , $f(k)=x^k$
You can proof that $f$ is a morphism of groups .
Note that : any two integers $k,l$ ; $f(k+l)=f(k)∗f(l)$
Then $f(\mathbb{Z})=\{x^k\mid k\in\mathbb{Z}\}$ is a subgroup of G. i.e $ \langle x\rangle$ is a subgroup of G.