Let $ \ C[0,1] \ $ stands for the real vector space of continuous functions $ \ [0,1] \to [0,1] \ $ on the unit interval with the usual subspace topology from $\mathbb{R}$. Let $$\lVert f \rVert_1 = \int_0^1 |f(x)| \ dx \qquad \text{ and } \qquad \lVert f \rVert_{\infty} = \max_{x \in [0,1]} |f(x)|$$ be the usual norms defined on that space. Let $ \ \Delta : C[0,1] \to C[0,1] \ $ be the diagonal function, ie, $ \ \Delta f=f \ $, $\forall f \in C[0,1]$. Then $$ \Delta = \big\{ (f,g) \in C[0,1] \times C[0,1] \ : \ g=f \ \big\} \ . $$ My questions are
(1) $ \ \ $ Is $ \ \Delta \ $ a closed set of $ \ C[0,1] \times C[0,1] \ $, with respect to the product topology induced by these norms?
(2) $ \ \ $ Is $ \ \Delta : (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_1) \to (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_{\infty}) \ $ continuous?
(3) $ \ \ $ Does $ \ \Delta : (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_1) \to (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_{\infty}) \ $ maps closed sets of $ \ (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_1) \ $ onto closed sets of $ \ (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_{\infty}) \ $?
(4) $ \ \ $ Is $ \ \Delta : (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_{\infty}) \to (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_1) \ $ continuous?
(5) $ \ \ $ Does $ \ \Delta : (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_{\infty}) \to (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_1) \ $ maps closed sets of $ \ (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_{\infty}) \ $ onto closed sets of $ \ (C[0,1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_1) \ $?
Now about some terminology, when I say that "$\Delta \ $ is closed", or that "$\Delta \ $ is a closed map" or that "$\Delta \ $ is a closed operator"?
Thanks in advance.
As to 1), this is just general topology: $\{(x,x): x \in X\}$ is closed in $X \times X$ in the product topology iff $X$ is Hausdorff. All metric topologies are Hausdorff. So yes, $\Delta$ is closed in both product topologies. See these answers. This assumes that both copies of $C([0,1])$ have the same topology. The question is unclear on this point.
As to (2), consider the spike functions $f_n(x): f_n(x) = 0$ for $x \in [\frac{1}{n}, 1]$ and $f_n(x)$ is linear from $1$ to $0$ between $0$ and $\frac{1}{n}$.
Then $f_n(x) \rightarrow 0$ (the all zero-function) in the $L^1$ norm but $\left||\Delta(f_n)\right||_\infty = 1$ for all $n$, so does not converge to $\Delta(0) = 0$ in the $L^\infty$ norm.
If $f_n \rightarrow f$ in the sup norm, $||f_n -f||_1 = \int_0^1 |f_n -f|dx \le ||f_n - f||_\infty$ and this shows $\Delta$ in (4) is even Lipschitz.
I'll have to think about the closedness a bit.
As to closedness $i_1: (X, \mathcal{T}) \rightarrow (X,\mathcal{T}') ,i_1(x) =x$ is continuous iff $i_2: (X, \mathcal{T}') \rightarrow (X,\mathcal{T}), i_2(x) =x$ maps closed sets to closed sets: suppose the first $i_1$ is continuous, if $C$ be closed in $\mathcal{T}'$ , then $i_2[C] = (i_1)^{-1}[C]$ is closed in $\mathcal{T}$. The other direction is similar.
This should settle the closed-map questions.