I have seen similar if not the same questions, but none of them fully answer this question.
For my question, I want to know why I would need to rationalize the denominator of $\frac {3y} {2 \sqrt y}$ to $\frac {3 \sqrt y} 2$, when writing out the derivative for $h(y) = y\sqrt y$. In another similar case for $\frac {1} {2 \sqrt x}$ to $\frac {\sqrt x} {2 \ x}$, for the derivative of y = √x, there is no need to rationalize the denominator of its derivative; in other words, the domain of its derivative is different from the original function, regardless if I rationalize the denomiantor or not. So what is the purpose of rationalizing the denominator?
Note:
-The domain of the derivative of h(y) is [0,∞) when leaving it as $\frac {3y} {2 \sqrt y}$
The domain of the derivatibe of h(y) is (0,∞) when rationalizing the denominator to $\frac {3 \sqrt y} 2$
The domain of h(y) is [0,∞)
For those who still don't understand my question:
For h'(y), why would I need to rationalize the denominator? How would I know that the domains of h and h' are the same in the first place? From initial calculation of the derivative, it gives $\frac {3y} {2 \sqrt y}$, where x at 0 is undefined
For $y = \sqrt x$, it is clear that the derivative is not defined at x=0 because y'= $\frac {1} {2 \sqrt x}$ will result in $\frac {1} {0}$, and to double check $\frac {\sqrt x} {2 \ x}$ still makes the derivative undefined x=0 resulting in $\frac {0} {0}$. So in either case, you have a 0 in the denominator, in other words resulting in division by 0, which makes the function undefined at x = 0.
For h(y), it is a different case. You calculate h'(y) as:
$\frac {3y} {2 \sqrt y}$ or $\frac {3 \sqrt y} 2$
For $\frac {3y} {2 \sqrt y}$, you get a $\frac {0} {0}$ case, but when rationalizing the denominator to $\frac {3 \sqrt y} 2$, you get $\frac {0} {2}$, which is 0, so it is defined at 0. So in brief, from my way to look at it this is to view the step of "rationalzing the denomiantor" as a second check as to whether the derivative is really undefined at x = 0.