[Edit. The question lacks certain important conditions, as kindly pointed out by NeutralElement. Below is the amended version. I apologize for the omissions and many thanks to NeutralElement and user254665 for helpful comments. ]
This is related to the question raised by Boby. For a variant, consider the nonnegative function $f(x)$ satisfied by $$ f(\alpha\, x + (1 - \alpha) \, y) \le f^{\alpha}(x/\alpha) \, f^{1-\alpha}(y), \qquad (1) $$ for $\alpha \in (0, 1]$ and real $x$ and $y$.
What can we say about his function? Is it always convex?
[Edit2. In the original question by Boby, there is one additional condition that requires that $x \ge y$. But unfortunately I missed this condition in the previous edit. So I'll settle for the result for the above question. I apologize for the many omissions. However, if anyone can comment how this condition changes the result, it would be much appreciated. Thank you.]
Here are some observations that may or may not help.
Observation 1
With $y = x$, we have $$ f(x) \le f(x/\alpha). \qquad (2) $$ This means that $f(x)$ is increasing for $x \ge 0$, and decreasing for $x \le 0$. A corollary is that $f(0)$ is the global minimum, i.e, $$ f(0) \le f(x). \qquad (3) $$
Observation 2
By Young's inequality or the weighted AM-GM inequality, we have $$ f^\alpha(x/\alpha) f^{1-\alpha}(y) \le \alpha f(x/\alpha) + (1 - \alpha) f(y). \qquad (4) $$ Thus, (4) and (1) require $$ f(y + \alpha (x - y)) \le \alpha \, f(x/\alpha) + (1 - \alpha) \, f(y). $$
Some ideas below.
Since fractional powers are defined only for non-negative numbers this problem should have in its statement $f\ge0$ which comes to $f(0)\ge0$ since $0$ is the global min.
If $f(0)=0$ then pick $y=0$ in the given condition to get $f(\alpha x)\le0$ for every $\alpha\in(0,1],\ x\in\mathbb{R}$. In this case $f\equiv0$.
It remains that $f(0)>0$. Clearly $f=k>0$ constant is a solution for this problem.
Let us look for non-constant solutions. Again for $y=0$ we get $$ f(\alpha x)\le f^\alpha(x/\alpha)f^{1-\alpha}(0) $$
Assume that $f$ is non-constant. Then $\lim_{x\to+\infty}f(x)=\sup_{x\ge0} f(x)=+\infty$. Similarly, $\lim_{x\to-\infty}f(x)=\sup_{x\le0} f(x)=+\infty$.
More precisely, if we assume that $\lim_{x\to+\infty}f(x)=\ell=\sup_{x\ge0} f(x)<+\infty$ then $\ell\ge f(0)>0$. Pick $x=\alpha^{-2}$ and let $\alpha\to 0$ to get $\ell\le f(0)$ from which we obtain the contradiction $f\equiv f(0)$.
Now I see that a sharper inequality is obtained for $x=0$. Namely, $$ f(\alpha x)\le f^\alpha(x)f^{1-\alpha}(0) $$ (I renamed $y\to x,\ 1-\alpha\to\alpha$ )
Also I see that $f(x):=e^{|x|}$ is a solution so I will be concerned in the sequel only with the convexity of $f$.
Something else. Note that $f(x)=e^{g(x)}$ is a solution of this problem iff for every $\alpha\in(0,1],\ x,y\in\mathbb{R}$, $g(\alpha x+(1-\alpha)y)\le\alpha g(x/\alpha)+(1-\alpha)g(y)$.
This remark shows that your problem is equivalent to asking whether $g$ is convex whenever $g(\alpha x+(1-\alpha)y)\le\alpha g(x/\alpha)+(1-\alpha)g(y)$ holds for every $\alpha\in(0,1],\ x,y\in\mathbb{R}$ (and that is a simplification of your problem).