In $\mathbb{R}^n$ if the derivative of a function exists at a point $x$, then the directional derivative of that function at $x$ in the direction $v$ is an inner product between the derivative at $x$ and the direction $v$.
Does the same idea apply to Gateaux/Frechet derivatives? If the Frechet derivative exists is the Gateaux differential an inner product?
Let's concentrate on the Frechet derivative for now. From Wikipedia:
What I want to highlight here is that $A$, which is the Frechet derivative, is defined to be a bounded linear operator.
In the particular case when $V$ is a Hilbert space, and $W$ is the scalar field (real or complex), then the derivative becomes a bounded linear functional. The Riesz representation theorem implies that such functionals take the form $\langle \cdot, u \rangle$, where $u$ is some fixed vector in $V$. So, in the case of maps from Hilbert spaces to their scalar fields, yes, the derivative is indeed expressed via an inner product. Although it's an abuse of notation, we sometimes call $u$ the Frechet derivative, even though it's really the functional $\langle \cdot, u \rangle$.
If $W$ is not the scalar field, then inner products are clearly not appropriate; the derivative is a linearisation and should map into $W$, not the scalar field, as an inner product does. This is true in finite-dimensions too.
Also, if $V$ is not an inner product space, then there's no inner product with which to express the derivative!
Now, the Gateaux derivative is a little bit more general. I've seen a couple of inequivalent definitions of the Gateaux derivative. The version I'm used to seeing looks quite similar to the above definition:
That is, it's much the same as the above definition, except that the difference quotient has to tend to $0$ invidividually along each line, rather than uniformly along all lines.
However, note that $A$ is still required to be bounded linear operator. By the same logic, you can express this as an inner product whenever $V$ is a Hilbert space and $W$ is the scalar field, otherwise no.
The other definition for Gateaux derivative drops the requirement that $A$ be linear or bounded, and defines it in terms of the directional derivative. The Gateaux derivative of $f$ at $x$ is defined to be the function $$h \mapsto \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(x + th) - f(x)}{t},$$ which may not be linear or continuous (even in finite dimensions). In this case, even when $V$ is an inner product space and $W$ is the scalar field, the Gateaux derivative may not be expressible as an inner product.