We know, that $[a,b]$ is perfect when the sigma algebra is that of Borel sets. Does it hold true when the sigma algebra is that of Lebesgue measurable sets?
Definition:A measure space $(X, Σ, μ)$ is said to be perfect if, for every $Σ$-measurable function $f : X → \mathbb{R}$ and every $A ⊆ \mathbb{R}$ with $f^{−1}(A) ∈ Σ$, there exist Borel subsets $A_1$ and $A_2$ of $\mathbb{R}$ such that
${\displaystyle A_{1}\subseteq A\subseteq A_{2}{\mbox{ and }}\mu {\big (}f^{-1}(A_{2}\setminus A_{1}){\big )}=0.}$
Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.
Your question is confusing. The notion of a perfect set is a topological one. However, in the title you're asking about the perfectness of the Lebesgue measure ($\lambda$) on $[a,b]\subset \mathbb{R}$.
First, $\lambda$ is a perfect measure on $\mathcal{B}_{[a,b]}$ ($\because$ it is inner regular). Now using the following result (Proposition 7.5.4(ii) here), it is clear that $\lambda$ is a perfect measure on the completion of $\mathcal{B}_{[a,b]}$: