In The Handbook of Epistemic Logic, they define a basic system K to be an extention of propositional logic, as
- All propositional tautologies
- $\square(p \to q) \to \square p \to \square q$
- $p \to q, p\vdash q$ (MP)
- $p\vdash \square p$ (NEC)
where $p,q$ range over propositions. I do not understand the NEC rule in the sense that it's presented as a rule and not as an axiom. Wouldn't it be equivalent to having the axiom $p\to \square p$ for the same reason $\square(p \to q) \to \square p \to \square q$ is an axiom? You could only ever apply $p \to \square p$ if $p$ was derivable from the axioms, so how would this differ from having this as an inference rule? The only reasoning that I could come up with was because when it is in the form of an axiom $p \to \square p$, it would have equivalent forms $\neg p \vee \square p$, $\neg \square p \to \neg p$, and others that would loose the sense of what the rule means.
I guess this leads to the more general question about why you would opt to define a rule $$ \frac{p_1 \quad \ldots \quad p_n}{q} $$ in addition to modes ponens, rather than just adding $$ (p_1\wedge\ldots\wedge p_n) \to q $$ as an axiom?
We can see the difference without invoking formal semantics.
$p\rightarrow\square p$ tells us that if (or, whenever) $p$ holds, it holds necessarily. An utterly deterministic Weltanschauung; a very difficult position to defend.
$p\vdash\square p$ tells us that if $p$ is assumed (or, shown) to be a valid formula (i.e., true whatever the case is), then it is accepted to hold necessarily. Not uncontroversial, but validity preservation is quite a defensible position.