Q: Given an ordered ring $A$ is the number of automorphisms of $A$ equal to the number of orderings in $A$?
An ordering on a ring is totally defined by a subset of $A$ we call $A^+$ that satisfies these conditions:
- Its closed under addition and multiplication
- $\forall a \in A$ one and only one of the cases holds: $a=0,a \in A^+,-a \in A^+$.
We define the relation $">"$ as: $a>b \iff a-b \in A^+$.
Let $\mathcal{A}^+$ be the set of all orderings (the set of subsets of $A$ that satisfy 1,2) and Aut$(A)$ the set of all automorphisms of $A$.
We know that $A$ is ordered so $\mathcal{A}^+$ is non-empty, let $I^+ \in \mathcal{A}^+ $ and define $f:$ Aut$(A) \rightarrow \mathcal{A}^+ $ s.t $f(\phi)=\phi(I^+)$. Note that this fucntion is well defined because if $A^+$ is an ordering on $A$ and $\phi \in $ Aut$(A)$ then $\phi(A^+)$ is also an ordering on $A$.
Its needed to prove or disprove if this function is a bijection.
Regarding the "one-to-oneness" of the function I tried proving it by contradiction assuming there are $\phi,\psi \in \text{Aut}(A) \text{ such that } f(\phi)=f(\psi) \iff \phi(I^+)= \psi(I^+)$ that aren't equal that is, there exists $a \in A$ s.t. $\phi(a) \neq \psi(a)$ then assuming without loss of generality that $\phi(a) > \psi(a)$. therefore, $\phi(a)-\psi(a) \in \phi(I^+)=\psi(I^+)$. But im having trouble continuing.
Note $f$ may not be one-to-one or onto so in that case it's necessary to come up with a counter-example.
No. For instance, $\operatorname{Aut}\Bbb Q(x)$ is certainly a countable set. However, there are uncountably many orders on the ring $\Bbb Q(x)$: at least one for each map $\Bbb Q(x)\hookrightarrow \Bbb Q(\alpha)\subseteq \Bbb R$ that sends $x\mapsto \alpha$, where $\alpha$ is a transcendental number. The corresponding $ A^+_\alpha$ might be devised as such: consider a rational sequence $a_n\to \alpha$. We say that a rational function $u(x)\in\Bbb Q(x)$ is in $A^+_\alpha$ if and only if there are a rational $h>0$ and some $n\in\Bbb N$ such that $u(a_m)>h$ for all $m>n$. It is clear that $ A^+_\alpha\ne A^+_\beta$ for all $\alpha\ne \beta$, because, if say $\beta>\alpha$, then $x-q\in A^+_\beta\setminus A^+_\alpha$ for some rational $q\in(\alpha,\beta)$.
Added: Also notice that these orderings encompass an uncountable family of isomorphism classes of ordered rings: an ordered isomorphism $\Phi:(\Bbb Q(x),A^+_\alpha)\to (\Bbb Q(x),A^+_\beta)$ is a fortiori an element of $\operatorname{Aut}\Bbb Q(x)$, and therefore there are at most countably many such isomorphisms. Moreover, $A^+_\beta=\Phi[A^+_\alpha]$ for any such isomorphism, therefore there can only be countably many $A^+_\beta$ in the order-isomorphism class of each $A^+_\alpha$.