I need to prove the following statement:
Let $f:\mathbb{C}\rightarrow\mathbb{C}$ a continuous function and $B \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ bounded, implies, that the set $A=f^{-1}(B)$ to be bounded.
I do know that the statement is true for a continuous function on closed sets.
Is it possible, that this statement is also true for just bounded sets; and if not, what is the argumentation?
Consider constant function $f(z)=c$ for all $z$, then $\{c\}$ is bounded, but $f^{-1}(\{c\})=\mathbb{C}$.