Assume that $a \gt 1$ .
Is the series $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty}( a^{\frac{1}{k}}-1)$ convergent?
Note : I think it must be related to a test ... Is there a test to confirm that a series converges ? Can we say this series converges because $a^{\frac{1}{k}}$ does?
Hint: $$a^{1/k}-1=\int_0^{1/k}a^x\ln a\,dx\sim\frac{\ln a}{k}$$