I have the following problem:
For every rational number $q\in \mathbb{Q}$ is $U_q\subseteq \mathbb{R}$ an open neighbourhood of $q$. Is the following true? $$\mathbb{R}=\bigcup_{q\in\mathbb{Q}}U_q$$
Intuitively I'd say that it is not true.
Every open neighbourhood of a rational number $q$ is an interval $]a,b[\subset \mathbb{R}$ with $a< q < b$. We define $\epsilon_q:=\max\{q-a,b-q\}$.
What if there is an $r\in \mathbb{R}\backslash\mathbb{Q}$ with $|r-q|=e>\epsilon_q$ $\forall q\in \mathbb{Q} $? This would be possible because a single point $r$ in $\mathbb{R}$ is closed, which means that $\mathbb{R}\setminus\{ r\}$ is open. So you can find such a neighbourhood for every $q\in \mathbb{Q}\setminus\{r\}$. Is this correct? Is this already a counterexample to the statement above?
Thanks in advance.
For each rational $q$, define$$U_q=\begin{cases}\left(\sqrt2,+\infty\right)&\text{ if }q>\sqrt2\\\left(-\infty,\sqrt2\right)&\text{ otherwise.}\end{cases}$$Then $\bigcup_{q\in\mathbb{Q}}U_q=\mathbb{R}\setminus\left\{\sqrt2\right\}.$