This was confusing me when learning about curvature and smoothness. The condition for smoothness on interval $I$ is given as:
- $\mathbf r'$ is continuous;
- $\mathbf r'(t) \neq \mathbf 0$.
In this particular example, the space curve of this parametrization is just a straight line passing through the origin, but it follows that $$\mathbf r'(t) = \langle 3t^2, 3t^2 \rangle$$ thus $\mathbf r'(0) = \mathbf 0$, meaning that $\mathbf r$ is not smooth at the origin. However, the space curve seems to be perfectly "smooth" and differentiable. What am I missing here?
(Also, by this definition the parametrization $\mathbf s(t) = \langle t, t \rangle$ with the same space curve is smooth at the origin. Why could they be different?)
tl; dr: The term smooth gets used inconsistently. As elsewhere in mathematics, the words-to-concepts relation is not a mapping; the same word can mean multiple things.
To be careful with terminology here, it might be best to say the mapping $r(t) = (t^{3}, t^{3})$ is infinitely differentiable, but not regular at $t = 0$.