Let $f$ be a positive Lebesgue integrable function on a ball $B_{r}\in\mathbb{R}^n$. I'm looking for a positive constant $c$ depending only on $f$ that satisfies $$c\omega_nr^n\leq\int_{B_r}f$$ where $\omega_n$ is the volume of the $n$-dimensional unit ball.
I'm also wondering if the similar result holds for a nonnegative integrable function $f$ and a nonnegative constant $c=c(f)$. Of course, $c=0$ satisfies the inequality in the this case but I need a positive constant $c$ unless $f\equiv 0$ a.e. on $B_r$.
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I have asked these questions as I thought that the existence of such a constant will help to fill out the gap of the proof of Proposition 2.27(Alexandroff's Maximum Principle of Quasilinear Equations) in "Elliptic Partial Differential Equations" by Q. Han ad F. Lin. In the proof it derives an inequality $$\int_{B_M}g^n\leq\int_{\Omega}h^n<\left(\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}g^n\right)$$ where $g\in L^n_{loc}(\mathbb{R}^n)$ and $h\in L^n(\Omega)$ are nonnegative functions and $M$ a positive constant. (The second inequality is just an assumption of the proposition.) Then the authors conclude with no further explanation that there exists a positive constant $C$ which depends only on $g$ and $h$ such that $$M\leq C.$$ I think that in order to derive the second inequality from the first one we need a bound which I have suggested. Thanks for your help.
If $f>0$ on $B_r$, and $c \le f(x)$ for all $x\in B_r$, we know that the volume of $B_r$ is $\omega_n r^n$, so we get $$ c\,\omega_n r^n = c\,\operatorname{Vol}(B_r) = c\int_{B_r} 1\,\mathrm dx = \int_{B_r} c\,\mathrm dx \le \int_{B_r} f(x)\,\mathrm dx. $$
Thus, $c(r,f)=\inf_{x\in B_r} f(x)$ satisfies your inequality.
However, as @martini pointed out, this infimum might be $0$.
Instead, consider the mean value of $f$ on $B_r$, i.e. $\overline f = \frac{\int_{B_r} f}{\operatorname{Vol}(B_n)}$. We easily see that $$\int_{B_r} \overline f = \overline f\,\omega_n r^n = \int_{B_r} f.$$ Thus, $c=\overline f$ also satisfies your inequality, where $\overline f = 0$ if and only if $f\equiv 0$ almost everywhere on $B_r$, so $f>0$ is certainly sufficient for $\overline f>0$.
Of course this is an obvious bound you immediatly get from dividing the inequality by $\omega_n r^n$ in the first place.
For non-negative $f$ you will not get a bound, since $\int_{B_r} f$ might be $0$ in this case. Consider for example $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 0,& \text{if $x\neq 0$,}\\ 1,& \text{if $x=0$.} \end{cases} $$