So we have two prime fields and seek a homomorphism between them. I assume that i have to find a homomorphism that is valid for all p,q prime , $p \not= q$, not just one for each choice. I would say that it is not possible.
- We can not use the zero map because we have the neutral element of multiplication (1) that needs to be mapped to 1.
- Any other mapping will fail the test as well, i mean if it does work i can just pick another q or p so i will get a different value, right?
As you see i am a bit unclear here, what i want to ask is
- Is my assumption correct?
- How could i start to formally prove my point?
$\mathbf F_q$ would have characteristic both $q$ and $p$, since it would contain a subfield isomorphic to $\mathbf F_p$, which is impossible if $p\neq q$.
Actually, the only homomomorphisms between finite fields are the canonical injections: $\,\mathbf F_{p^m}\hookrightarrow\mathbf F_{p^n}$, which exist if and only if $m\mid n$.