Too often it's useful to just set $C$ to $0$ after integrating, so I was wondering if there is a symbol for that?
Formally this would mean a shorter way of writing: $\int_{t_0}^x f(t)\,\mathrm{d}t = F(x), (F(t_0) = 0)$
This is useful when integrating sums of integral and splitting these as in: $\int x^2+2\,\mathrm{d}x$.
$(1)\quad \int x^2+2\,\mathrm{d}x = \color{green}{\int_{t_0}^x t^2\,\mathrm{d}t}+\color{red}{\int2\,\mathrm{d}x} = \color{green}{\dfrac{x^3}{3}} + \color{red}{2x + C}$
But this changes the variable from $x$ to $t$, which isn't very nice. Another way is:
$(2)\quad\int x^2+2\,\mathrm{d}x = \color{green}{\int x^2\,\mathrm{d}x}+\color{red}{\int 2\,\mathrm{d}x} = \color{green}{\dfrac{x^3}{3} + C_1} + \color{red}{2x + C_2} = \color{green}{\dfrac{x^3}{3}} + \color{red}{2x} + \color{blue}{C}, \,(\color{green}{C_1}+\color{red}{C_2} = \color{blue}{C})$
Which is sometimes just written as:
$(3)\quad\int x^2+2\,\mathrm{d}x = \color{green}{\int x^2\,\mathrm{d}x}+\color{red}{\int 2\,\mathrm{d}x} = \color{green}{\dfrac{x^3}{3}} + \color{red}{2x} + \color{blue}{C}$
But which I find is missing a step, as it doesn't explain where the $\color{blue}{C}$ comes from. If I could just choose an antiderivative from the first integral $\left(\color{green}{\int x^2\,\mathrm{d}x}\right)$ without a constant, this would be fine.
I was thinking maybe
$(4)\quad \int_{t_0}^x f(t)\,\mathrm{d}t = F(x), (F(t_0) = 0) \overset{_\text{def}}{=} \int_0 f(x)\,\mathrm{d}x = F(x)$
(With the property that $\int_0 f(x)\,\mathrm{d}x + C = \int f(x)\,\mathrm{d}x$)
$(5)\quad \int x^2+2\,\mathrm{d}x = \color{green}{\int_0 x^2\,\mathrm{d}x}+\color{red}{\int x^2+2\,\mathrm{d}x} = \color{green}{\dfrac{x^3}{3}} + \color{red}{2x + C}$
Or in general:
$(6)\quad \int f_1(x)+f_2(x)+\cdots+f_n(x)\,\mathrm{d}x = \int_0 f_1(x)\,\mathrm{d}x+\int_0 f_2(x)\,\mathrm{d}x+\cdots\int f_n(x)\,\mathrm{d}x$
So is there perhaps a better way to write this in an unambiguous way, if not: would my own notation be confused anywhere? (In any case it'd be used only for personal use).
Thanks in advance !
There is no such notation for setting $C=0$.
While there are already several good answers, I believe one thing everyone has failed to mention is exactly why there isn't such a notation.
I believe the following example best illustrates the problem:
$$\int \sin(2x)\,dx = \int 2\sin(x)\cos(x)\,dx = \sin^2(x)+C$$ where we used the substitution: $u=\sin(x)$ and so $du=\cos(x)\,dx$.
On the other hand, $$\int \sin(2x)\,dx = \int 2\sin(x)\cos(x)\,dx = -\cos^2(x)+C$$ where we used the substitution: $u=\cos(x)$ and so $du=-\sin(x)\,dx$.
Of course both $\sin^2(x)$ and $-\cos^2(x)$ are antiderivatives of $\sin(2x)$. Notice that they differ by a constant: $\sin^2(x) =-\cos^2(x)+1$.
But with your proposed notation which one do we get when $C=0$? The answer is ambiguous.
To pick out a particular antiderivative you need to pick a base point like: $F(x) = \int_0^x f(t)\,dt$ so that $F'(x)=f(x)$ and $F(0)=0$. This is exactly the choice you have advocated above. So you could do this. If this is what you want, you're notation would be: $F(x)=$ "$\int_0^x f(t)\,dt$". I guess you could abbreviate this as "$\int_0^x f$" and everyone would understand what you mean.
However, when computing indefinite integrals, there is no universally accepted base point. Why? It might seem like $x_0=0$ is a good choice for a base point, but it wouldn't work for cases like $\int 1/x\,dx = \ln|x|+C$.
The ambiguous indefinite integral notation is there because it allows us to be lazy and avoid making a choice. :)