I managed to prove it by rewriting the partial products in terms of $n!$ and then applying Stirling's approximation. But I was wondering if there is a more elementary method to show that the limit is zero, without using such heavy machinery.
Also, is it true that in general $$\prod_{n=0}^\infty \frac{an+b}{an+c}=0, \qquad a>0\ \textrm{and}\ c>b$$
The partial products are $$ \prod_{n=0}^N\frac{2n+1}{2n+3}=\frac{1}{3}\cdot\frac{3}{5}\cdot\frac{5}{7}\cdots\frac{2N+1}{2N+3}=\frac{1}{2N+3} $$ hence $$\prod_{n=0}^\infty\frac{2n+1}{2n+3}=\lim_{N\to\infty}\prod_{n=0}^N\frac{2n+1}{2n+3}=\lim_{N\to\infty}\frac{1}{2N+3}=0$$
The general product $\prod_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{an+b}{an+c}$ requires a bit more work, because there's no reason why terms should cancel as they do in this case.
Taking a logarithm of the partial product, we get $$ \log\frac{b}{c}+\sum_{n=1}^N\log\Big(\frac{1+\frac{b}{an}}{1+\frac{c}{an}}\Big) $$ and using $\log(1+x)=x+O(x^2)$ for small $x$, we get $$ \log\Big(\frac{1+\frac{b}{an}}{1+\frac{c}{an}}\Big)=\log\Big(1+\frac{b}{an}\Big)-\log\Big(1+\frac{c}{an}\Big)=\frac{b-c}{an}+O(n^{-2}) $$ Therefore $$ \log\frac{b}{c}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\log\Big(\frac{1+\frac{b}{an}}{1+\frac{c}{an}}\Big)$$ diverges to $-\infty$, so the product converges to $0$.