Is there an intuitive reason why $J_0$ should be the only Bessel function that behaves different than its kind at 0?

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I'm staring at the Bessel functions, and I'm trying to figure out exactly why $J_0$ should behave differently than $J_{1^+}$: at zero, only $J_0(0)=1$, and $J_{n\geq1}(0)=0$.

j_n

Even all of $Y_n$ behave in the same singular way:

y_n

It strikes me as odd that one element in an infinite series would exhibit unique behavior at 0. It seems like there should be an explanation for the behavior of $J_0$ other than "it solves the equation," but I'm not sure what that might be.

Is there one?

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Another way to derive it is from the representation of $J_n(x)$ as Fourier series coefficients: $$ J_n(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi e^{-int} e^{ix \sin(t)}\; dt $$

So $$J_n(0) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\pi}^\pi e^{-int}\; dt $$ which of course is $0 $ for integers $n \ne 0$ and $1$ for $n=0$.